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Boris Godunov
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Portland, OR
Aug 2001 time: 00:18
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http://www.wsws.org/articles/2003/m.../tex2-m15.shtml
The redistricting had been done already by a nonpartisan panel in 2000, so another one wasn't due until 2010.
And nobody said it was a legal issue, it was an issue of standard practice and policies. The GOP blatantly violated longstanding tradition for a power grab, thus opening the floodgates for retaliation when the pendulum swings the other way.
Last edited by Boris Godunov on 29-04-2005 at 07:21
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Lefty Scaevola
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San Antonio TX USA
Oct 2000 time: 23:18
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
You seem to be missing the simple fact that redistricting is mandated by the constitution for only once every 10 years--no matter WHO does it. So the court doing it was the shot.
| Wrong again layman, no such rule in the constitution (and that would be law, not a fact, simple or otherwise). The only restrition to once in the ten year census period is to the taking of the cesus itself. The same clasue describes apportioment of numbers of districts to the states, but says ZERO about how many times the state may redistrict their respective apportionment. IIRC, cesus apportionment is artitle I, section 2, clause 3 (amened as to 'whole persons' by the XVI amendment).
I suspect, however, since you did not make the argument earlier, but only after a lower priority (state legislative rule) BS was disposed of, that you know that already, and your 'simple fact' was a simple lie.
Last edited by Lefty Scaevola on 29-04-2005 at 08:02
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Boris Godunov
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Portland, OR
Aug 2001 time: 00:18
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quote: Originally posted by Lefty Scaevola
Wrong again layman, no such rule in the constitution (and that would be law, not a fact, simple or otherwise). The only restrition to once in the ten year census period is to the taking of the cesus itself
The same clasue describes apportioment of numbers of districts to the states, but says ZERO about how many times the state may redistrict their respective apportionment. IIRC, cesus apportionment is artitle I, section 2, clause 3 (amened as to 'whole persons' by the XVI amendment). |
This has nothing to do with what I said--I explicitley stated it was NOT a legal issue. What I said--and is entirely correct--is that the Texas legislature is REQUIRED to redistrict after ever decennial census. Says so in Article III, Sec. 28 of the state constitution.
And I know that nothing limits, constitutionally, more redistricting--SCOTUS upheld that. It isn't about redistricting being illegal, it's about it being a snarky violation of established protocol that will open the floodgates to biannual political upheaval in the state.
That there was a legislative rule about the decennial redistricting supports the view that it was expected, when the rule was made, that redistricting would only be done every 10 years.
Tell me, what other reason could the GOP have other than partisan politics to redistrict two years after the previous redistricting was carried out by a bipartisan panel?
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