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Jon Miller
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I am a christian communist ?(most of the time)
Jon Miller
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mrmitchell
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to the 9th Circuit (sure to get flames on this one )
Did not read through the entire thread, but the Second Amendment was mostly because of that large empire owning 1/4 the world whose HQ was on the other side of the puddle. I mean, Great Britain, or England, or the United Kingdom, or whatever it was called then. Much like in the Revolutionary War, militia (which needed guns) would probably be necessary to fight the British. Now that there is no one on the other side of the puddle that we can't take on with our official US Army, militias aren't really necessary, and as such guns aren't really necessary.
The means of Revolution now (teaching and enlightenment) are much more possible due to our government. (Some kind of Democracy, I think; we need to get rid of the electoral system or whatever it was that made Bush president, he did not have a majority of the people's votes!!!) In the 1770's, the means of Revolution were bloodshed and chaos due to the type of government at that time. ("L'etast cest moi" is a quote that comes to mind as far as the King then, and in times before it. I don't know why, as I know there was a Parlaiment, but the Americans got no representation in it. )
Anyways...
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Ramo
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Austin, Texas, USA
Oct 1999 time: 23:24
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quote: Ah! So "regulated" does not mean "regulated" but rather "running well on its own without any regulation." Thanks for pointing out my erroneous thinking. |
Well, even today, something can be regulated by the human body, statistical mechanics, symmetries, and so forth. A number of other mechanisms besides the authority of the state. It's just that in the 18th century, the word didn't emphasize the latter mechanism as it does today.
quote: Oh...and uh.."trained" by whom? |
Family and friends passing on discipline, hunting and fighting skills, etc. Gun ownership, of course, was pretty pivotal in insuring that at the time.
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Ned
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of Aptos, CA
Oct 1999 time: 21:24
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A plausible reading of the 2nd Amendment is as follows:
"Congress shall pass no law infringing the right of the people to keep and bear arms, as a well regulated Millitia is necessary to for the security of a free State."
The debate, summarized by the 9th Cir., centered on whether the power to arm the militias would be exclusive with the Federal Government. It was feared that if the power was exclusive power the Federal Government could effectively abolish the Militias simply by not supplying them arms.
In those days, as is now in most of the world, Militia men were ordinary citizens who could be called up when necessary. They kept their guns at home. If the Federal Government could prohibit the right of the people to keep and bear arms, they could, by indirection, effectively abolish state Militias.
The Bill of Rights was not intended to limit States rights, as Imran has noted. It was intended to limit Federal power. Once this is understood, it is clear that the 2nd Amendment does not apply to the States. They can, if they want, remove the right of the people of their states to bear arms. But the Federal government cannot.
Thus, the law in question is constitutional because the law is a law passed by the State of California.
However, I suggest that national laws that infringe the right of the people to keep and bear arms of the military type - as implied by the Supremes in the Miller case - may be unconstitutional. Weapons, like sawed off shotguns, can be banned as noted in Miller.
The grey area would be a Federal law that affected the right of the States to form a citizen militia in any manner it saw fit. For example, I think a State could pass a law requiring every citizen to keep an assault rifle. A federal law that prevented the trafficking in assault rifle would interfere with this right. It would unconstitutional for this reason.
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