10-08-2001 21:16									#1
	Subtle variability of language in a screenshot Put an end to popups!

Ok, it's a tiny detail. But I'm perfectionist a little...
I saw civs' names where we build the scenario, and we have: Rome, Greece, Germany, China, Japan, India, Aztec Empire, Iroquois, Egypt, Babylon, Russia, America, France, Persia, Zulu Land and finally Britain.

What we can remark here is that in some cases, we name the civilisation (Iroquois), in some other case we name the civilisation and its type (Aztec Empire), and in some other cases we name the civilisations' territory (Zulu Land, China).

I'm probably the only that gave any importance to such, but I just remarked... So I woundered why so and if it wasn't better to uniformize. Hope you're not all


PS: Hip hip horry for civ3.com!!!

	10-08-2001 22:09									#2
	Support Apolyton, pre-order Civilization IV

Hm. I really don't see the variation. Sure "The Aztec Empire" could just as well refer to a piece of land as to the actual empire? In fact, what would the geographical term for The Aztec Empire be if not that? Also, all of these are substitutable- China is both an empire and a place. Even Zulu Land is not inconcievable as a civilization name. (Again, what else would it be?)

Previous incarnations of Civ have used the plural form of the various civilizations, whereas this tries to name the actual nation. The major exception seems to be Iroquois, but I cannot concieve what it'd actually be in singular. Possibly that is the correct singluar, what do I know.