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Akron
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Definitely the Byzantines, since they were basically a continuation of the Greek and Romans, just with cultural changes over time. I don't think the Byzantines really expanded after the 8th century or so. They just lost more and mor land until they were taken over by the Ottoman Turks in the 15th century. Its different from the U.S. and English scenario, as the U.S. was not built on top of the English.
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Boris Godunov
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Portland, OR
Aug 2001 time: 00:15
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quote: Originally posted by Martinus
Well, from the Firaxis/Sid Meier's, not historical point of view, Byzantines definitely were not separate civilization. I mean, in game they should be treated as a mutation of the Roman or even better Greek civilization.
Actually, I see it game wise like this: Romans conquered Greeks. Then Romans lost their capitol - and because of that the Byzantines (i.e. Greeks) splitted from their Empire, with Constantinople as their new capitol.
I mean, it would be strange to play the game with separate civs of Greeks, Romans and Byzantines.
As for the real world, the reason why in Civ there should not be a separate Byzantine and Greek civilization is simply that there was never a time in history when a Greek civilization existed side by side with Byzantines - simply because they were the same. |
Well, if by Byzantines they are making a general reference to Eastern Orthodox Europeans, I would not begrudge them a place in the game. However, as a political entity, even after the fall of Rome in 476, the Eastern Empire was considered the Roman Empire, and briefly reconquered the homeland of Italy. There is not a definite point at which one can say it ceased to be Roman and became Byzantine...was much more fluid than that.
Cheers.
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