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MichaeltheGreat
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Apolyton Grand Executioner
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mooning the house that Ruth built.
Oct 1999 time: 21:26
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quote: Originally posted by SlowwHand
That's great. MtG. 
So Hussein has broken a whole string of agreements in regard to his Cease Fire opportunity.
Anyone play Civ II ? If you do, maybe this will help.
You're battling an opponent, and sign a cease fire.
If you or the opponent don't act right, sign an official Peace Treaty maybe, what happens?
Back to the war.
Even during the cease fire, you will generally see AI troops massing just outside your city.
Kind of like real life. |
Actually, it's really not clear he's violated any agreement to which he was a party. The terms in the signed cessation of hostilities agreement were pretty minimal and apolitical, IIRC. Just the UNSCRs related to leaving Kuwait, not removing Kuwaiti property, turn over of heavy equipment, exchange of POW's, etc. Where he hose the allies was in helo flights - the Iraqis claimed they needed to use them due to bridges and roads being out, and to get commanders back and forth to their units and bases, etc., and were granted the right to use helos. They then used those to go after Shiite and Kurd rebels, hence the no fly zones were imposed after the fact (but never agreed to).
The difference in the NFZs was that under the terms of the cessastion of hostilities, the Iraqis were never allowed to operate fixed wing military aircraft. The NFZs extended that to be a blanket prohibition of any military flights.
I don't recall that the Iraqis ever signed the March 4 agreement - the shooting had stopped for five and a half days by then, and I don't remember. I think the UNSC issued the approved cease fire and said "this is it," but that's a bit different for one side to amend an agreement that was already made and signed by both sides.
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Ned
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of Aptos, CA
Oct 1999 time: 21:26
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quote: Originally posted by MichaeltheGreat
Actually, it's really not clear he's violated any agreement to which he was a party. The terms in the signed cessation of hostilities agreement were pretty minimal and apolitical, IIRC. Just the UNSCRs related to leaving Kuwait, not removing Kuwaiti property, turn over of heavy equipment, exchange of POW's, etc. Where he hose the allies was in helo flights - the Iraqis claimed they needed to use them due to bridges and roads being out, and to get commanders back and forth to their units and bases, etc., and were granted the right to use helos. They then used those to go after Shiite and Kurd rebels, hence the no fly zones were imposed after the fact (but never agreed to).
The difference in the NFZs was that under the terms of the cessastion of hostilities, the Iraqis were never allowed to operate fixed wing military aircraft. The NFZs extended that to be a blanket prohibition of any military flights.
I don't recall that the Iraqis ever signed the March 4 agreement - the shooting had stopped for five and a half days by then, and I don't remember. I think the UNSC issued the approved cease fire and said "this is it," but that's a bit different for one side to amend an agreement that was already made and signed by both sides. |
As I said before, MtG, this is exactly Hitler's argument about Versailles: it was imposed on Germany post facto. Germany never agreed to it or anything like it when they signed the Armistice.
Accepting, then that Hitler was right, as your argument in connection with the 1991 cease-fire agreements would suggest, then Britain's war against Nazi Germany in 1939 was unjust.
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SlowwHand
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of The Cooler
Sep 1999 time: 23:26
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quote: Originally posted by MichaeltheGreat
Actually, it's really not clear he's violated any agreement to which he was a party. The terms in the signed cessation of hostilities agreement were pretty minimal and apolitical, IIRC. Just the UNSCRs related to leaving Kuwait, not removing Kuwaiti property, turn over of heavy equipment, exchange of POW's, etc. Where he hose the allies was in helo flights - the Iraqis claimed they needed to use them due to bridges and roads being out, and to get commanders back and forth to their units and bases, etc., and were granted the right to use helos. They then used those to go after Shiite and Kurd rebels, hence the no fly zones were imposed after the fact (but never agreed to).
The difference in the NFZs was that under the terms of the cessastion of hostilities, the Iraqis were never allowed to operate fixed wing military aircraft. The NFZs extended that to be a blanket prohibition of any military flights.
I don't recall that the Iraqis ever signed the March 4 agreement - the shooting had stopped for five and a half days by then, and I don't remember. I think the UNSC issued the approved cease fire and said "this is it," but that's a bit different for one side to amend an agreement that was already made and signed by both sides. |
And still nothing that says this is not just a continuance of a previous war, which is all this thread is saying.
Your interpretation doesn't have to match mine.
Mine evidently match how the relevant country's leaders interpret it.
The fact remains, had there been a surrender document, Iraq probably would have been occupied, just as Japan and Germany were.
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GePap
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of the Big Apple
Nov 2001 time: 23:26
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quote: Originally posted by Ned
GePap, Hitler's war with Poland was over the Corridor and Danzig. |
Obviosuly not, since they had secured the whole corridor by sept 2 and did not stop there, now did they?
I am sorry Ned, but that answer is just plain wrong: Germany invalidated its commitment to Versailles in 1935; Had war begun then, maybe your argument makes sense, but after the Germans took the whole of Czechoslovakia in March of 39 it was clear they had intentiona far beyond regaining what they had lost, since Czechslovakia had never been German territory.
So no, even if one admits that Germany should not have been held to its versailles agreemnt, once it invaded all of Poland, bombed Warsaw and so forth it had commited a brand new act of aggresion for 2which a new war was called for and fully justified.
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Ned
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of Aptos, CA
Oct 1999 time: 21:26
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quote: Originally posted by GePap
Obviosuly not, since they had secured the whole corridor by sept 2 and did not stop there, now did they?
I am sorry Ned, but that answer is just plain wrong: Germany invalidated its commitment to Versailles in 1935; Had war begun then, maybe your argument makes sense, but after the Germans took the whole of Czechoslovakia in March of 39 it was clear they had intentiona far beyond regaining what they had lost, since Czechslovakia had never been German territory.
So no, even if one admits that Germany should not have been held to its versailles agreemnt, once it invaded all of Poland, bombed Warsaw and so forth it had commited a brand new act of aggresion for 2which a new war was called for and fully justified. |
Let's be honest. The Polish military was defending Poland and had to be defeated if Germany were to accept the Corridor and Danzig in any peace settlement. However, Britain's declaration of war changed everything, didn't it? Germany now had to secure their rear while they turned to face the French and English.
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