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Kidicious
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Diety of Kidiverse
Mar 2003 time: 21:27
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quote: Originally posted by GP
I guess thinking about it a little more. (For the moment, I'm agnostic as to wether the perceived growth potential in the US market is sound or unsound.) What matters is that the market beleives it so.
Now, I am an American company CEO with a company that is positioned for this implied growth. Suddenly my stock price has shot through the roof. Being the CAPM slave that I am, I notice that my D/E ratio is now out of whack for what the optimum financing structure should be. So, I go out and raise a bunch of debt. That means I now have all kinds of cash on hand. (The debt coming froming overseas capital). That means that I have to either jump into a bunch of new projects or I have to declare a large dividend and disburse the money to my shareholders. hmmm, I guess if I just give the money to my shareholders, it will be put into circulation and there won't be much of an exchange rate effect. (The shareholders will just trade it for euros.) If the money goes into projects, some of it will be sitting in bank accounts for a bit, before the projects get going. And then it will start percolating out to pay for various projects. What will be the effect of that? |
I'm not saying that your wrong, but it would help if you looked at it from the supply of dollars coming into the US point of view. Foreign investment is made in the US because importers to the US don't need all of their dollars. If they don't keep them for reserves they can speculate with them or they can buy US assets, but eventually the dollars must return to the US.
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yavoon
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do not microwave steak, cold is the manly way to go.
get some steak sauce if u wnt.
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TCO
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Richmond, VA
Jan 1970 time: 00:27
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quote: Originally posted by DrSpike
GP:
[Last word mode]
There is no reason given your caveats for the dollar price of gold to move. There is a reason for the dollar to appreciate against the euro. So this implies for consistency that the price of gold in terms of euros must rise as I said. It's just a standard arbitrage argument.
Start 1 Bar = 1 dollar = 1 euro
Then 1 dollar = 2 euros
Ergo, price of gold is arbitraged to 2 euros, or else people would just buy gold and convert to dollars. They do this until it isn't worthwhile, which is when the price of gold hits 2 euros.
Of course in reality the vagaries of the gold market are such that it is impossible to detect this effect amongst all the buffeting to supply and demand of gold. But your caveat protector stopped me making that point. 
[/last word mode]
Actually I'm going for a barbecue in the sun now, so anyone that wants it can have "post (hur hur) last word". |
ummm, I agree that arbitrage conditions must be met. But that could happen in a number of ways:
Start: 1 bar = 1 dollar = 1 euro
End: 1 dollar = 2 euro.
gold could be,
A. 1 bar = 1 dollar = 2 euro (euro inflated)
or
B. 2 bar = 1 dollar = 2 euro (dollar deflated)
or
C. 1.5 bar = 1 dollar = 2 euro (dollar deflated moderately, euro inflated moderately)
When I say nothing is changing wrt gold supply and demand, I mean that the population's inherent lust for gold hasn't changed nor have any mines opened or closed. But why should that say that the price is constant wrt dollars? I mean, why not say it should be constant wrt euros? And obviously to satisfy arbitrage, it can't be constant to both at the same time. Why have the conditions in our example made it constant wrt dollars rather than wrt euros?
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yavoon
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wtf cold steak is great. unless of course the steak sucks. but if u have any taste in steak cold steak is very yummy breakfast.
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