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Rusty Nail
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Copenhagen
Jan 1970
time: 05:28
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In my first few games I assumed that a 10% reduction in cost (i.e. materials primarily) would logically also mean a 10% reduction in time to produce, assuming the same worker efficiency. I now suspect that this is not true. They seem to be independent (as if the cost reduction was just a price discount). I suspect this because "job time" is a parameter in unitrules.xml (rather than worker efficiency), suggesting that this parameter is what is reduced when a production time benefit occurs, and no correction is made for reduced material needs. But I am not 100% sure. Can anyone confirm or deny? The answer is quite important in evaluating national benefits, wonders, rare resources and tech research priorities.
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11-06-2003 10:59
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