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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Caesar the Great
i guess we're just taken from one of those realities to another and that is consciousness... although wouldn't an exact copy of you be stuck somewhere (or more appropriately somewhen) at a point in time for eternity.... |
Its a philisophical question to ask whether an exact permutational duplicate of me, in every regard including neural construction and content, with an identical universe to my perception except for one atomic difference (like a speck of space dust having one less proton) I'd say that that was a clone... yet I would be different if I ever perceived the differing space dust particle. Therefore there is a probability that I am the same.
As to when... this exact state of the universe could have happened immediately after the inception of the universe, just like a pop-up book. So that me could exist any time.
Since I cannot perceive another useful quantum field state... it will remain a philisophical question.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Anunikoba
Sooo.. if a tree falls in a forest, and no one is around to hear it, then does it make a sound?
Or, if a Quanta exists in a different reality, and we can't percieve that reality, does it exist at all? |
well the mind blowing thing is that we can perceive quantum effects... they are just difficult to measure. It looks like quantum states leave artifacts in our reality.
If you place two uncharged utterly smooth plates 2 uf apart in a vacuum, they will move together. Why? because one half of a virtual particle appeared between them. They are using the property to work at sub nano scale, building new computers.
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MrBaggins
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Interestingly enough too.. QFT explains history... Your perception is the same going back on the state path that you travelled.
I.E. in QF infinite states are many single states in reverse.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Anunikoba
Thanx for your lessons in basic algebra and quantam mechanics- they are highly appreaciated. Hell! Even I read A Brief History of Time.
But my point is that when you speak of 'forwards-recursive infinite states', how relavant are all those other states of the quanta, if they are non-interacting with our percieved universe? (if, in fact, they exist at all) |
You can build a NMR component computer to perform quantum calculations, solve cryptographic problems and factors, and use other quantum behaviors such as teleportation (information teleportation) All QC concepts so far have either succeeded or are in the process being successfully developed. There is not yet one serious quantum computing concept that has failed. Solving decoherence is the issue; quata states have limited lifespans, so you have to create quantum error correction.
Just as modern planes prove the bernoulli principal, so do QC's prove quantum theory effects and lend serious weight to quantum theory.
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Adalbertus
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Cologne, Germany
Feb 2001 time: 06:19
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Just back a bit on pi, the question if pi does contain itself. Answer: Exactly once, beginning with the first digit.
(I understand "contains itelf" as "there is some n such that beginning with the n-th digit you have a full representation of pi").
Proof:
The "once" is obvious, because starting with the first "3" you have a full representation of pi 
Suppose there an n such that the n-th digit is 3, the n+1st is 1, n+2nd is 4 etc. (conveniently, let the first 3 be the digit number 0.) Then we know that the n+ith digit (i < n) equals the i-th digit. The 2n-th digit again is a 3. And so on. Which means in the end, pi is a periodic and thus a rational number, which it has been proved not to be. Therefore, there is no other digit than n=0 where you can find a copy of pi within pi.
quote: A number that can be expressed as a fraction |
MrBaggins, this post seems not to be complete, I guess you have forgotten to fit in some pictures. Anyway, I should explain what algebraic numbers age: They are those numbers that can be expressed as the zeros of polynomials with integer coefficients.
A good hint: Don't mess with infinity if you haven't understood why there are as many integers as rational numbers and why there are more real numbers than rational numbers. 
Two problems for beginners: Imagine you have a hotel with an infinite number of beds such that each bed is labelled by an integer number. Each bed is occupied.
1) One bus full of n tired guests arrives. How do you fit them into the hotel?
2) An infinite number (also labelled with distinct integer numbers) each with n tired guests arrive. How do you fit them into the hotel?
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Adalbertus
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corrected it missing two expressions at the bottom.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Anunikoba
Once again, I am not debunking quantum theory (as incomplete as it is) as yes, it does work. It is this statement:
"Everything happens, and keeps on recursively happening.
We only perceive one of those realities."
that fails the proof test. |
Actually, no... the fundemental principal of Quantum Field Theory and its divergence with General Relativity, is that there are infinities. QC leverages Quantum Field Theory behavior as much as Quantum Mechanics.
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Adalbertus
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Cologne, Germany
Feb 2001 time: 06:19
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quote: Actually, we don't really know if Pi really is an irrational number, do we? |
I've never bothered so much about piology, but there exists a proof that pi is irrational (you can prove such things without checking all decimals), and there exists also a proof that every finite sequence of digits is contained in pi. I don't know where to find the proof, and I'm not so much interested in that topic as to search for it. Sorry.
Btw. If pi were a rational number, the "quadrature of the circle" would be possible, i. e. to geometrically construct a square with the same area as a given circle, using pen, ruler and compasses only. It has been proved to be impossible.
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Adalbertus
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Cologne, Germany
Feb 2001 time: 06:19
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quote:
Originally posted by Cesar the Great
say you have a number line from negative infinity to infinity and you made a point for each rational number and each irrational number, the set of points for the rational numbers is A and the set of points for the irrational numbers is B. are there more elements in set A or set B?
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You have more elements in set B.
Preliminaries:
First, the mathematician's notion of "has the same number of elements" is perhaps a bit counterintuitive. For sets in general, one talks about the cardinality, #A, of a set A. For finite sets, this is just the familiar number of elements. For infinite sets, you start with mappings. Take two sets A and B, then you can map each element of A to an element of B., in some way. (the familiar functions are examples of mappings, or numbering a set of six eggs is a mapping of the set {1,2,3,4,5,6} to the set of your eggs.)
Then you define mappings, who for each element of A have a unique image in B, as injective. More mathematically: A mapping f:A->B is injective if and only if for each a and b in A holds that if f(a) = f(B) then a=b.
The labelling of the eggs is injective. The sine function is not, as sin (0)= sin(pi), but 0 != pi.
Now back to the cardinalities: One defines for two sets A and B that #A <= #B if there exists an injective mapping f:A->B. This is exactly the way you would try to find out if you have more steaks or more plates. Further one defines #A =#B if #A <= #B and #B <= #A.
If you think a bit over it you will make the stunning discovery that there are as many even numbers as integers (see below for something even stranger). This seems to be odd at first, but there is no better way to define the "number of elements" for infinite sets.
Now we are prepared for infinity. First: There are as many rational numbers as positive integers.
Proof: Denote the set of positive integers by N and of positive rational numbers by Q. We already know that N is a subset of Q, therefore the injective mapping f:N->Q is trivially built. (note, there is no reason to exhaust Q with this mapping).
Then we know that each rational q can be expressed as a fraction n/m. Now set up the following scheme:
1/1 1/2 1/3 1/4 1/5 ....
2/1 2/2 2/3 2/4 2/5 ....
3/1 3/2 3/3 3/4 3/5 .....
4/1 4/2 4/3 4/4 4/5 ....
and so on. This scheme contains all positive rational numbers. Now start in the top left. Label the number 1/1 as 1. Then go down. Label 2/1 as 2. Then go right up, label 1/2 as 3. Go right, find 1/3 as 4. Go left down. 2/2=1/1, so skip this number. Again left down, 3/1 is number 5. And so on.:
_ _
|/ / / /
/ / /
/ / /
|_/
I'm not a good ASCII painter, but I think you see the path. Anyway, you label each of the positive rational numbers with a unique positive integer, so you have also #Q <= #N. The sets thus have the same cardinality, i. e. "number" of elements.
So, now about the positive real numbers, R. Let's assume we have already proven that each decimal number has a unique decimal expansion (except for 1=0.999999... and analogue). Then we assume we have successfully numbered all decimal numbers. Then we write them in a long list
3.1415926.....
2.7182818....
1.2000000....
etc.
Then we take the first number and change the first digit, take the second number, change the second digit, etc.
1.1415926...
2.4182818...
1.2100000...
etc.
and collect the changed digits to a new number, in this case 1.41... This number is clearly a real number and clearly not in our list. Which means there is no injective mapping f:R->N, or in other words #R > #N.
Now, the irrational I numbers are a subset of R only, such that R is the union of Q and I. Now, if I were countable (which means, #I = #N), then we could easily construct an injective mapping from R->N by mapping Q to the even and I to the odd numbers for example. Therefore, #I>#Q. (In fact, one can show, but I don't know, how atm, it's time for bed now, that #I=#R).
An interesting side note: It has been shown that it is impossible to know if there is a set A which fulfills #N < #A < #R.
Good night.
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SnowFire
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New York City, NY
Jan 1970 time: 00:19
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Ugggggggggghhh. I smell lots of horribly false statements.
Interestingly enough, onr of our math-faculty lunches here had the topic "Is Pi normal?" Interesting that word hasn't come up yet, but normal means that for any string of length k in base b, there is 1/(b^k) chance of finding that string in all strings of length k in the decimal expansion. So in base 10, 1/10 of the digits are 2's, 1/10 are 3's, 1/100 of the 2-string patterns are "23," etc.
As KrazyHorse pointed out, proving pi is normal might get you a Fields Medal. But from what we've expanded so far and general evidence, pi at least "seems" random enough to be normal. Also, any random irrational number you choose is irrational (want to generate an irrational number? Roll a 10-sided die over and over again and write it down)- random selection of irrationals will give you probability 1 of picking a normal one, so the odds are on the side of pi being normal as well. The examples given of things like .010010001... are bizarre degenerate cases... which pi might be, but I doubt it myself.
Last edited by SnowFire on 28-04-2002 at 09:56
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