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Capt Dizle
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Absolutely wrong AH. As I posted earlier Hitler wanted to rule the world alongside the Brits. He never wanted war with the West, at least not beyond avenging the defeat of WWI. He was satisfied by the humiliation of the French defeat.
Revisionists be damned. Hitler is condemned for the bombing of London but the facts are that England was the first to institute mass bombings of civilian targets. Hitler only retalitated.
Hitler almost certainly allowed the BEF to escape. Hitler was true to his core beliefs and England he considered a sister Aryan country.
Sealion was never seriously contemplated by Hitler for two reasons. It was not feasible and he wanted to settle with England.
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ravagon
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Australia
Sep 1999 time: 13:24
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quote: Originally posted by Alexander's Horse
Britain was lucky Prussians don't like water.
The invasion of Britain was quite feasible in 1940. Britain was practically defenceless. The army left most of its equipment at Dunkirk, the navy and air force would have been hard pressed to interdict an invasion force.
The lucky thing was the effect on air power on capital ships had not yet been demonstrated in 1940 so Hitler had no idea just how easy it would have been for the Luftwaffe to keep the Royal Navy at bay.
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If one looks at the later war statistics of the effect of German air against allied warships one can come to a markedly different conclusion. Other than a raid or two against the main base at Scarpa Flow (something like a single days sailing IIRC) the RN was basically unscathed. German naval transport was sorely lacking after the debacle in Norway and had an attempted invasion been cut off the Wehrmacht could've found itself in much the same state as the BEF when it was pulled out of Normandy.
quote:
What saved Britain was Hitler did not want to risk a fighting invasion like D Day. He wanted a risk free landing. |
That I'd agree with 100%. Sealion certainly wasn't risk-free.
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Dauphin
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Caught in a tuna net
Jan 1970 time: 05:24
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quote: Originally posted by jimmytrick
Revisionists be damned. Hitler is condemned for the bombing of London but the facts are that England was the first to institute mass bombings of civilian targets. Hitler only retalitated.
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Germany was the first to bomb civilians - residential areas of London with no military or strategic value were bombed when German planes got lost and dropped their payloads (intended for Rochester docks) on London.
Britain was the first to target civilians - They dropped bombs on Berlin in retaliation for the bombing of London. More British aircrew died (eight in total) from that raid than German civilians. This is in no way mass bombing. Germany retaliated to this by the Blitz, dropping hundreds of thousands of bombs on London and other cities - killing tens of thousands of people.
Conclusion? Britain was not the first to mass bomb civilian targets, but they were the 'first' to intentionally target non-military targets.
Edit - clarity
Last edited by Dauphin on 02-12-2002 at 07:41
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David Floyd
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The bottom of a large bottle of beer
Jan 1970 time: 05:24
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quote: If the Germans hadn't had to worry about the Soviets, they could have crushed the British in North Africa, and gained access to the Suez and middle east quite easily. |
Only if the took Malta, and won control of the Med. Almost every Axis convoy from Italy to Africa was hit hard by the British, and supply is one of the big reasons Germany lost in North Africa.
But for the Axis to seize supremacy in the Med, the Italian Navy would have to throw out the Royal Navy. Frankly, this was not going to happen. Even when the RN had two battleships sitting in the mud in Alexandria harbor (as a result of Italian frogmen), the RN was still going after the Regina Maria.
In 1940, British air attacks from a carrier crippled three battleships in Taranto, the main Italian naval base, and in 1941, the Battle of Matapan - a cruisers/destroyer fight - was a major British victory.
The Regina Maria was not going to seriously challenge the Royal Navy after this, and in fact that is one of the reasons Hitler cancelled Herkules (invasion of Malta) - he feared that the Italian Navy would run off at the sight of the British Navy.
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David Floyd
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The bottom of a large bottle of beer
Jan 1970 time: 05:24
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I agree, but part of his failure in the Med, IMO, had to do with the Italian Navy and German perceptions of the Italians.
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TheStinger
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International crime fighting playboy
Apr 2002 time: 05:24
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they would as england is little and the ships could be stationed very nearby and there were lots of them
Last edited by TheStinger on 02-12-2002 at 14:08
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Jon Miller
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Stalin was planning on attakcing germany, only later
Jon Miller
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Dr Strangelove
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For pity's sake! Germany didn't have any landing craft in 1940, so how could they have invaded England? There was a half-hearted attempt to adapt river barges to the task, but these craft weren't really designed for ocean duty. They would probably have been about as seaworthy as the USS Monitor was in the American Civil War.
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Ned
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of Aptos, CA
Oct 1999 time: 21:24
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If Germany does not attack the USSR nor declare war on the United States in '41, but continues the build up for an invasion of Britain that potentially takes place in '42 or '43, then Hitler wins WWII.
Even in '41 the majority in the United States remained against getting involved in the European war. While it is true that Germany invaded Poland, the USSR did so as well. Germany and the USSR had a non aggression pact and seemed to be coordinating conquests. It was not clear that a US declaratoin of war on Germany would not also have provoked the USSR to intervene on behalf of Germany. (This, BTW, is what prevented us from going into China during the Korean conflict, or North Vietnam during the Vietnam war - the fear of a wider conflict that we could not win.)
Also, Britain and France declared war on Germany, not the other way around.
Even after the invasion of the USSR and Pearl Harbor, Roosevelt could not get Congress to declare war on Germany. So, a German victory in WWII was a virtual lock had Hitler not been so "stupid."
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