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Az
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MACEDONIA - It's the name of the sovereign country to the north of Greece
Apr 2000 time: 07:27
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Well they say that it was between 1000, and 850, approximately. Our only evidence is the bible, but it's not like this is the only piece of history that's based burely on scriptures. And as the lands conquered were of the same culture ( Hebrews were basically canaanites, just as the phoencians. the same alphabet, extremely similar languages, almost identical pottery and masonery, and the religion was extremely young as well, with many polytheistic characteristics, as well), it's rather hard to pinpoint by archeological proof.
oh, and Israel is "around the dead sea?" maybe you can scan and post it? 
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gsmoove23
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I call BS on your William the Conqueror assertions. The landscape is covered with evidence of the Norman Invasion.
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Straybow
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SG(2)
gone but not forgotten
Jan 1970 time: 23:27
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quote: According to my historical atlas:
blah, blah, blah | So just because political and military control is contested, as through the pre-Davidic era, or they exist as a vassal state, as under the Assyrians, Israel and Judah did not exist? Your atlas only shows political influence, not who populated the land.
The Egyptians and Assyrians didn't live in Israel/Palestine, neither did the Babylonians, Persians, Greeks, or Romans. Sure, a limited number of the conquerors may have moved in to keep control. The Assyrians deported the majority of Jews from the northern parts, and various Edomite and Syrian tribes moved in. Babylon deported most from the southern parts, but didn't allow other tribes to move in.
After the end of Babylonian captivity the Jews returned and numerically dominated the Gentile populations in the South, and gradually in areas of the North. The presence of dominant or significant population over a great length of time makes their claim to historical possession valid. In addition, there had been a significant Jewish population (~30%) in Jerusalem from 70 AD through the 19th century.
Should Greeks be able to claim any lands in the NME just because Alexander conquered them all 24 centuries ago? Can Morocco and Algeria claim Spain and France just because Moorish kingdoms once controlled those areas? What about Crusader Kingdoms in the Levant? Past political control has no validity in the present.
Should Gaelic speaking peoples be able to claim any lands in North and West Europe just because they were there before the Germanic tribes took over? No, control is a matter of the present and it is not possible to install every displaced people into some hypothetical lands of their origin. So why Israel?
Arabs were conquered by Turks, and they allowed greater numbers of Jews to settle in Jerusalem and other places. Turks were conquered by Europeans, and the NME nations that exist now do so by the borders established by the Europeans in this century. Part of that division was to existing Jewish populations in Jerusalem and other areas of the country, with the provision that refugees from Europe and Russia could emigrate to there.
We can (as the Arabs originally wanted) throw the whole thing up for grabs and see who gets shafted when the dust settles. Then Israel has legitimately conquered Golan, the West Bank, Gaza, and Southern Lebanon. If the Arabs don't like that, they are welcome to try and take it back. If the US decides to support Israel and exert pressure on others to withhold support for Arab countries, too bad.
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gsmoove23
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quote: Originally posted by Azazel
Such as? ( I am not disbuting the fact that William the Conqueror has indeed landed there, but doubting the fact that there is archeological evidence to the landing, the Battle of Hastings, and the existance of William the conqueror. Vikings have been landing on Britannia for many centuries. ) |
Considering he started building Battle Abbey in 1067 on the battle site...http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/02350c.htm
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