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MrBaggins
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They were predigious record keepers... everything had to be paid and accounted for. What would be the overpowering reason to think that they wouldn't record it?
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by DinoDoc
... still doesn't jive with the fact that no document during the lifetime of Jesus mentions Jesus at all. |
No surviving document. Lots of documents have been lost in 2000 years.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
For the time, yes, but not to the point that there would be records archived in Rome detailing the executions of criminals, which was an incredibly common thing. Any records would have been maintained in Judea, and if they existed, probably lost in the revolt of 69-70 AD, when the city was destroyed. |
We don't actually know whether they did or didn't report excutions/per date to Rome... or report significant executions, such as the killing of a revolutionary.
Certainly much documentation was archived and transported to Rome, so that the Emporer could keep track of the provinces, to ensure that he wasn't being swindled.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
We have plenty of records from Rome, none of them deal with executions of criminals in the provinces. What evidence do you have that such a record would be in the Roman archives, when none of the surviving records we have are of that sort?
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Plenty. But not all. That would be the only proof.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
So in other words, you concede there's no evidence to support your assertions? |
The absence of evidence isn't proof to the contrary. Particularly when you know a situation is incomplete.
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MrBaggins
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I'd agree with that... as a possible scenario... but not the only possible scenario.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
You do realize you're making these statements after the previous discussion of empirical evidence, don't you?
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And also after discussing Quantuum Field Theory, particularly with regard to perceptive uncertainty.
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
Possible and most probable. What sense would it make for Tacitus to root through the Roman archives to find a document about the execution of a Judean criminal in order to write a single sentence that is tangental to the point at hand, and the information contained therein was commonly known around Rome at the time? He certainly didn't go to such extremes for everything he wrote.
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Common knowledge is a good point. We don't know what verbal sources Tacitus used, either...
or what diary Pilate or other officials might have kept.
Last edited by MrBaggins on 27-02-2004 at 09:19
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
Another problem is that in this passage, Tacitus states Pilate's title wrongly. He wasn't called "Procurator," he was called Prafectus. If he was using an official document, why'd he get the title wrong? |
Pontius Pilate was procurator from 26-36 CE
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MrBaggins
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quote: Originally posted by Boris Godunov
No, he wasn't, he was a Prefect. The title "Procurator" for a Roman governor did not come into use until the reign of Claudius (41-54 A.D.). Using "Procurator" to descrive Pilate is a blatant anachronism. |
Yep.. you're right... based on that block of limestone.
Interesting... since it casts doubt on the entire passage.
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MrBaggins
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A few possibilities... Forged, typo, assumption, wrong word of mouth, or being based on an incorrect written account from someone else... perhaps the early Christian writings.
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Dr Strangelove
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You also have to take into account the expense and scarcity of paper, and the relative dearth of people able to write. Then again there is the fragility of ancient paper. The ancients didn;t know enough to impregante their paper with toxic chemicals so that the paper wouldn't break down for thousands of years. Stupid Ancients!
When was Tacitus wring his accounts? If it was after Claudius' time maybe he simply unintentionally used the title more common for his era. Once the title was written correcting it would have been very expensive.
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